ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?
- A. We should track the rate of hospital-acquired infections.
- B. We should evaluate patient satisfaction scores.
- C. We should start tracking how soon patients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
- D. We should check the patient's temperature before discharge.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Vitamin B6
- D. Propranolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.
3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It should be taken with food
- C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
- D. It is safe during pregnancy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding, so clients should be monitored for this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is not typically associated with causing drowsiness. Choice B is not a specific consideration for aspirin use; it is not necessary to take it with food. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin is not considered safe during pregnancy and should be avoided, especially in the third trimester, as it may cause complications for the mother and the baby.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberry
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. It is recommended that women avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after receiving the vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberry, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine.
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