Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You will receive IV fluid before this test.
• B. The procedure will take approximately 10 to 15 minutes.
• C. You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test.
• D. You will need to sign an informed consent form before each test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is that the client will be offered orange juice to drink during the nonstress test. This is because offering the client orange juice, or another beverage high in glucose, will help stimulate the fetus during the procedure, aiding in obtaining accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because IV fluid is not typically administered before a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure usually takes around 20 to 40 minutes. Choice D is incorrect as informed consent is typically obtained once for the procedure, not before each individual test.

2. A woman in a women's health clinic is receiving teaching about nutritional intake during her 8th week of gestation. The healthcare provider should advise the woman to increase her daily intake of which of the following nutrients?

• A. Calcium
• B. Vitamin E
• C. Iron
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, the recommended daily iron intake is higher compared to non-pregnant women. Pregnant women should aim for 27 mg/day of iron, while non-pregnant women require 15 mg/day if under 19 years old and 18 mg/day if between 19 and 50 years old. Iron is essential during pregnancy to support the increased blood volume and ensure the proper oxygen supply to the fetus. Calcium is important for bone health but does not need a significant increase during early pregnancy. Vitamin E and Vitamin D are important but do not have specific increases recommended during the 8th week of gestation.

3. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
• B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
• C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
• D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

4. When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Betamethasone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Betamethasone is the correct medication to anticipate the provider prescribing to hasten fetal lung maturity in clients at risk for preterm labor. It is a corticosteroid that helps promote lung maturation in the preterm fetus by stimulating the production of surfactant, which is essential for lung function. This medication is commonly given to pregnant individuals at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Calcium gluconate, Indomethacin, and Nifedipine are not used to hasten fetal lung maturity in preterm labor; they serve different purposes in maternal and fetal care.

5. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

• A. Missed abortion
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Severe preeclampsia
• D. Hydatidiform mole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

Similar Questions