ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has ulcerative colitis about dietary recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid high-fiber foods
- B. Increase intake of spicy foods
- C. Consume foods high in fiber
- D. Eat large, infrequent meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Consume foods high in fiber.' Consuming high-fiber foods helps manage symptoms of ulcerative colitis by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding high-fiber foods can worsen symptoms as fiber is beneficial for digestive health. Increasing the intake of spicy foods can exacerbate inflammation in the digestive tract, leading to more discomfort. Eating large, infrequent meals can put more strain on the digestive system, which is not ideal for managing ulcerative colitis.
2. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
- C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.
3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
4. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.
5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.
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