a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer has developed stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, is to encourage the client to eat soft foods. Soft foods help prevent further irritation to the mouth. Providing lemon-glycerin swabs (choice A) can be too harsh and irritating to the mouth. Avoiding toothpaste (choice C) is not necessary unless it contains harsh ingredients that can further irritate the mouth. Instructing the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol (choice D) is contraindicated as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be too harsh and drying for clients with stomatitis.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

4. What are the key interventions for managing pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics and monitor oxygen levels. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection caused by bacteria in pneumonia, while monitoring oxygen levels helps ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging deep breathing, as in choice B, are more commonly associated with managing conditions like asthma or COPD, not pneumonia. Providing fluids and monitoring for dehydration, as in choice C, are important for various conditions but not specific to pneumonia management. Administering oxygen and providing bed rest, as in choice D, may be supportive measures in pneumonia treatment, but the key intervention is administering antibiotics.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

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