a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

2. Which instruction should be emphasized for a client with diabetes being discharged?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Take insulin before meals as prescribed' because it is crucial for managing blood glucose levels effectively in clients with diabetes. Insulin helps the body utilize glucose from the food consumed, preventing high blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar once daily (Choice A) may not be sufficient for proper management, as blood sugar levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice C) is too infrequent and may lead to missed opportunities for timely intervention. Eating carbohydrate-rich meals to maintain glucose levels (Choice D) is not appropriate advice, as it can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels, especially without the proper insulin dosage.

3. Which of the following is the best strategy for managing dehydration in a client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing dehydration in a client is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently. This allows healthcare providers to assess the client's hydration status accurately and make informed decisions regarding treatment. Encouraging the client to drink more water (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the dehydration is severe and requires specific interventions. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial but should be guided by monitoring the client's condition. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice D) may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not always the initial or best approach, as monitoring is crucial to avoid fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

4. What should a healthcare professional do when they observe signs of phlebitis in a client receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When signs of phlebitis are observed in a client receiving IV fluids, the appropriate action is to apply a warm compress. This helps to reduce discomfort and swelling at the site of the IV insertion. Applying a cold compress may not be as effective in this case and could potentially worsen the condition. While notifying the physician is important, providing immediate comfort to the client through a warm compress is the initial recommended intervention. Administering anti-inflammatory medication should only be done under the direction of a healthcare provider after assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

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