Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Rectus femoris muscle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

3. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for digoxin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take your pulse before taking the medication.
• B. Take the medication with an antacid.
• C. Double the dose if you miss one.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for digoxin is to take their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia as a side effect, and monitoring the pulse helps in assessing the heart rate prior to medication administration. This precaution allows for the identification of any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You can still eat sugar, but you must count it in your carbohydrate count for the day.
• B. You need to avoid all forms of sugar to keep your blood glucose levels under control.
• C. You can eat unlimited amounts of proteins and fats since they do not affect blood glucose levels.
• D. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic agent every day to manage your blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is that they can still eat sugar, but they must count it in their carbohydrate intake for the day. This is important because clients with type 1 diabetes need to manage their blood glucose levels by calculating their carbohydrate intake, including sugars. Choice B is incorrect because total avoidance of sugar is not necessary, but monitoring and including it in the carbohydrate count is essential. Choice C is incorrect as proteins and fats can also affect blood glucose levels and should be consumed in moderation. Choice D is incorrect since oral hypoglycemic agents are not used in type 1 diabetes mellitus, as insulin replacement therapy is the mainstay of treatment.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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