ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. Decrease caloric intake to reduce weight gain
- B. Increase dietary fiber to prevent constipation
- C. Rise slowly when sitting up
- D. Take this medication each morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with doxazosin is to rise slowly when sitting up. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness upon sudden position changes. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the potential side effects or administration of doxazosin.
2. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?
- A. A sandwich and milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
- D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.
3. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform fundal massage
- B. Administer oxytocin IV
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
4. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Atropine
- D. Diazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.
5. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
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