Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

• A. Stress fractures
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Gingival ulcerations
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

3. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include that a severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic, has a cross-sensitivity with penicillin antibiotics like piperacillin. Therefore, a severe allergy to penicillin or penicillin-related antibiotics would be a contraindication to ceftriaxone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with a known cross-sensitivity with ceftriaxone.

4. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning.
• B. Assist the client to a chair before administering the medication.
• C. Give the medication to the client with water rather than milk.
• D. Educate the client on how to take the medication at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach before breakfast to ensure optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a chair is not directly related to the administration of alendronate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid taking alendronate with milk. Choice D is also incorrect as the priority at this moment is the correct administration of the medication in the hospital setting.

5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray.
• B. Administer an antiemetic.
• C. Inform the client's provider.
• D. Check the client's apical pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.

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