Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for agranulocytosis
• B. It is a first-line treatment
• C. It can cause significant weight loss
• D. It has no risk for metabolic syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
• B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
• C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

4. When educating a client about valproic acid, which instruction is essential?

• A. Monitor for rash
• B. Expect weight loss
• C. Consider it safe during pregnancy
• D. Purchase it over-the-counter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for rash. Valproic acid can lead to severe skin rashes, and patients must be vigilant to report any rash promptly. Choice B is incorrect as valproic acid is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is associated with birth defects and should be avoided during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as valproic acid is a prescription medication and not available over-the-counter.

5. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

• A. Assess the patient's temperature
• B. Document the patient’s response
• C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Administer epinephrine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering blood products, assessing the patient’s temperature is crucial. This action provides baseline data to detect any febrile reactions during or after the transfusion. Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction, so continuous monitoring of vital signs is essential throughout the procedure. Documenting the patient’s response (choice B) is important but comes after assessing the temperature. Priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride (choice C) is not directly related to the initial action required before administering blood products. Administering epinephrine (choice D) is not indicated unless there is a severe allergic reaction, which is not the standard initial step before blood product administration.

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