ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
- A. Varicella
- B. Influenza
- C. Hepatitis B
- D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
2. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?
- A. Shakiness or Tremors
- B. Confusion or Irritability
- C. Hunger
- D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.
3. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.
4. Which of the following is an early indicator that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning?
- A. Decreased respiratory rate
- B. Irritability
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Decreased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is necessary for a client with a tracheostomy. Irritability can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing, which may be due to the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and decreased oxygen saturation are not typically early indicators that suctioning is needed in a client with a tracheostomy. These symptoms may occur later if the airway is not cleared promptly.
5. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply heat to the affected area
- B. Place the client in a prone position
- C. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
- D. Provide the client with a bedpan every 4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.
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