Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?

• A. Varicella
• B. Influenza
• C. Hepatitis B
• D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate.
• B. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Perform a vaginal examination.
• D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for early decelerations, which are caused by fetal head compression and are considered normal during labor, is to continue monitoring the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations mirror contractions and usually do not require any intervention. Stopping the oxytocin infusion (Choice B) is not necessary as early decelerations are not typically a cause for concern related to oxytocin. Performing a vaginal examination (Choice C) or initiating an amnioinfusion (Choice D) are unnecessary and not indicated specifically for early decelerations.

3. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

• A. When the client is hypotensive
• B. When the client is irritable
• C. When the client is flushed
• D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected stroke?

• A. Monitor for changes in neurological status and administer thrombolytics
• B. Monitor for speech difficulties and administer oxygen
• C. Provide IV fluids and monitor blood pressure
• D. Administer pain relief and monitor for respiratory failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected stroke, it is crucial to monitor for changes in neurological status as this can provide important information about the patient's condition. Administering thrombolytics, if indicated, is a critical intervention in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke to help dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. This choice is the correct answer because it addresses the immediate management needs of a patient with a suspected stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for speech difficulties, administering oxygen, providing IV fluids, monitoring blood pressure, administering pain relief, and monitoring for respiratory failure are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected stroke.

5. When providing discharge instructions for a client with home oxygen, what safety measure should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Prohibit smoking near oxygen equipment
• B. Ensure the client uses non-flammable bedding
• C. Ensure oxygen tanks are stored upright
• D. Keep the oxygen equipment at least 6 feet away from heat sources

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the oxygen equipment at least 6 feet away from heat sources. Placing oxygen equipment near heat sources can lead to fire hazards due to the oxygen's combustible nature. Option A is the correct safety measure as smoking near oxygen equipment can cause fires due to oxygen's flammable properties. Option B regarding the use of non-flammable bedding is not directly related to oxygen safety. Option C is important for proper oxygen tank functioning but is not as critical as keeping the equipment away from heat sources to prevent fires.

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