ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
- A. Varicella
- B. Influenza
- C. Hepatitis B
- D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Diaphoresis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the body's response to low blood sugar. During hypoglycemia, the body releases epinephrine, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to preserve glucose for vital organs such as the brain. Tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia when it progresses to severe stages and the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with ascites?
- A. Monitor abdominal girth and administer diuretics
- B. Administer pain relief and monitor fluid intake
- C. Restrict fluid intake and encourage bed rest
- D. Administer albumin and check electrolyte levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When managing a patient with ascites, monitoring abdominal girth is crucial as it helps assess the extent of fluid retention. Administering diuretics is also essential to help reduce fluid buildup in the body, thereby managing ascites effectively. Option B is incorrect as pain relief is not the primary intervention for ascites. Option C is incorrect as restricting fluid intake can worsen the condition by causing dehydration and further fluid imbalances. Option D is incorrect as administering albumin and checking electrolyte levels are not first-line interventions for managing ascites; these interventions may be considered in specific cases but are not the initial steps in managing ascites.
5. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels
- B. Administer diuretics and restrict potassium
- C. Provide dietary education and monitor fluid intake
- D. Administer antibiotics and check for dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels.' In managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial for the nurse to monitor urine output and electrolyte levels to assess kidney function and the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This monitoring helps in early detection of any worsening kidney function or electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because administering diuretics and restricting potassium may not be appropriate for all AKI patients and should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider. Choice C is also incorrect as providing dietary education and monitoring fluid intake are important but do not directly address the immediate management of AKI. Choice D is incorrect as administering antibiotics and checking for dehydration are not primary interventions for managing AKI; antibiotics are only given if there is an infection contributing to AKI, and dehydration should be managed but is not the primary role of the nurse in AKI management.
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