ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
- A. Varicella
- B. Influenza
- C. Hepatitis B
- D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
2. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.
3. What are the complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
- B. Hypoglycemia and increased urination
- C. Kidney failure and respiratory distress
- D. Liver failure and hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, sodium, and chloride, as well as dehydration due to excess urination and vomiting. These complications should be managed promptly with appropriate fluids and insulin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia and increased urination are not typical complications of diabetic ketoacidosis; kidney failure and respiratory distress may occur in severe cases but are not the primary complications. Liver failure and hypertension are not directly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.
4. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels
- B. Administer diuretics and restrict potassium
- C. Provide dietary education and monitor fluid intake
- D. Administer antibiotics and check for dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels.' In managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial for the nurse to monitor urine output and electrolyte levels to assess kidney function and the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This monitoring helps in early detection of any worsening kidney function or electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because administering diuretics and restricting potassium may not be appropriate for all AKI patients and should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider. Choice C is also incorrect as providing dietary education and monitoring fluid intake are important but do not directly address the immediate management of AKI. Choice D is incorrect as administering antibiotics and checking for dehydration are not primary interventions for managing AKI; antibiotics are only given if there is an infection contributing to AKI, and dehydration should be managed but is not the primary role of the nurse in AKI management.
5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
- A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
- B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
- D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access