ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
- A. Varicella
- B. Influenza
- C. Hepatitis B
- D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
2. When instructing a client with tuberculosis on home care, what is the priority teaching point?
- A. Wear a surgical mask at all times
- B. Limit visitors to two-hour increments
- C. Take medication for 6-9 months
- D. Take breaks during meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medication for 6-9 months.' The priority teaching point for a client with tuberculosis is to ensure they understand the importance of completing the entire course of medication. This is crucial to effectively treat and cure tuberculosis, prevent the development of drug-resistant strains, and reduce the risk of transmission to others. Choice A is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask at all times is not the priority teaching point for tuberculosis home care. Choice B is not the priority teaching point; while limiting visitors can help reduce exposure to others, completing the medication course is more critical. Choice D is not relevant to tuberculosis home care instructions.
3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?
- A. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps
- B. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed
- C. Maintain the client in a prone position
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.
4. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?
- A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
- B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
- C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
- D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. WBC count.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. Serum creatinine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.
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