what are the key signs of respiratory distress
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in clients receiving TPN because the solution has a high glucose content. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia and allows for timely adjustments in the TPN formulation if needed. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Administering insulin (Choice C) should be based on blood glucose levels and the healthcare provider's orders; it is not a standard intervention for all clients on TPN. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice D) is important for overall fluid balance but is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels specifically for clients on TPN.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Cut toenails straight across.' This instruction is crucial for clients with diabetes to prevent ingrown toenails and potential foot complications. Soaking feet in hot water daily (Choice A) can lead to skin damage and is not recommended for diabetic individuals. Using a heating pad on the feet daily (Choice B) can cause burns or injuries due to reduced sensation in the feet that often accompanies diabetes. Massaging feet with lotion daily (Choice D) is generally safe but may not address the specific preventive measure of cutting toenails correctly.

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