Nursing Elites

1. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles
• B. Decreased respiratory rate and cyanosis
• C. Cyanosis and use of accessory muscles
• D. Altered mental status and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

2. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client?

• A. Facilitate the client in returning to usual activities of daily living
• B. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations
• C. Assist the client in preparing for a peaceful and dignified death
• D. Delay the progression of the disease process in the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining optimal function within the client's limitations is the most realistic and appropriate nursing goal when caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. This goal focuses on maximizing the client's abilities and quality of life while acknowledging the impact of the disease. Option A is less realistic as returning to usual activities may not always be achievable in the case of Parkinson's disease. Option C is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current condition and care needs. Option D is less realistic as Parkinson's disease is progressive, and delaying its progression may not be entirely feasible.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. What is an essential nursing intervention for a client experiencing delirium?

• A. Control behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
• B. Identify the underlying causative condition
• C. Increase environmental stimulation
• D. Administer antipsychotic medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - 'Identify the underlying causative condition.' When a client is experiencing delirium, it is crucial to determine the root cause of this acute change in mental status. This can involve a thorough assessment to identify any medical conditions, medications, infections, or environmental factors that may be contributing to the delirium. By pinpointing the underlying cause, appropriate interventions can be implemented to address the specific issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics, increasing environmental stimulation, and administering antipsychotic medication do not target the primary need of identifying and addressing the causative condition of delirium.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Frequency
• B. Dosage
• C. Timing of doses
• D. Route

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.

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