ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Rectus femoris
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.
2. A newborn demonstrates respiratory distress, and routine suctioning with the bulb syringe is unsuccessful. What is the next nursing intervention?
- A. Initiate chest compressions
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Suction with a mechanical device
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When routine suctioning with a bulb syringe is unsuccessful in a newborn demonstrating respiratory distress, the next appropriate nursing intervention is to suction with a mechanical device. This method ensures effective removal of any airway obstruction. Initiating chest compressions (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the primary concern is airway clearance. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, but addressing the airway obstruction should take precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be considered after attempting mechanical suction if the newborn's condition does not improve.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lip-smacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxytocin IV
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
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