a nurse is positioning a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture the nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. The nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a lumbar puncture is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the spine to curve naturally, widening the spaces between the vertebrae, making it easier and safer to perform the procedure. Supine with head elevated (Choice A) would not provide the proper positioning for a lumbar puncture as it does not allow for proper access to the lumbar area. Prone with arms at sides (Choice C) would not be suitable as it would not facilitate the procedure. Sitting with back rounded (Choice D) is also incorrect as it does not allow for the proper alignment of the spine needed for a lumbar puncture.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

3. What are the complications of untreated hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic ketoacidosis and dehydration. Untreated hyperglycemia can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication characterized by high blood sugar, the presence of ketones in the urine, and acidosis. Dehydration is also a common complication of untreated hyperglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypertension are not typical complications of untreated hyperglycemia. Infection and liver failure, as well as pulmonary edema and electrolyte imbalance, are also not direct complications of untreated hyperglycemia.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

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