Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 2.6 mL
• B. 2.2 mL
• C. 3.5 mL
• D. 5.0 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.

2. A client with GERD is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should take my medicine with orange juice.”
• B. “Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.”
• C. “I will lie down after meals.”
• D. “I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting activities that require bending at the waist can help prevent episodes of reflux in clients with GERD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking medicine with orange juice may not be appropriate as citrus juices can aggravate GERD. Having a bedtime snack can exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach acid production, and lying down after meals can worsen symptoms of GERD by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.

3. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

• A. Mood changes
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Heart rate
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Restrict protein intake to less than 40 g/day
• B. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
• C. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 mL/hr
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate twice per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.

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