ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
- A. 4 g sodium diet
- B. Potassium-restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.
3. A client with a new prescription for an albuterol metered-dose inhaler is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Inhale quickly when using the inhaler.
- B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Take a second puff of the inhaler immediately after the first.
- D. Exhale fully after using the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows the medication to settle in the lungs and maximize its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as inhaling quickly may lead to improper medication delivery. Choice C is wrong because taking a second puff immediately after the first without waiting for the prescribed interval may cause an overdose. Choice D is also incorrect as exhaling fully after using the inhaler may result in the medication being exhaled rather than absorbed by the lungs.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Petechiae
- C. Change in mental status
- D. Edema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
- A. Oxygen saturation 94%
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing
- D. Peripheral cyanosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
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