Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client following gastric bypass surgery. The nurse should include which of the following dietary instructions when preparing the client for discharge?

• A. Start each meal with a protein source.
• B. Consume at least 25g of fiber daily.
• C. Check your blood glucose level before each meal.
• D. Limit your meals to three times per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Start each meal with a protein source.' Protein is crucial for healing and maintaining muscle mass after gastric bypass surgery, making it essential to include in each meal. Choice B is incorrect because immediately after surgery, the focus is typically on a low-fiber diet to aid in healing. Choice C is unrelated to the nutritional needs following gastric bypass surgery. Choice D is also incorrect as patients recovering from gastric bypass surgery may require more frequent, smaller meals to meet their nutritional needs.

2. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

4. A nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old newborn for cold stress. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Respiratory rate of 60/min
• B. Jitteriness of the hands
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jitteriness of the hands. Jitteriness is a key sign of cold stress in a newborn, indicating the need for immediate warming measures. A respiratory rate of 60/min may not be directly indicative of cold stress. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not typical findings associated with cold stress in newborns.

5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

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