Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client following gastric bypass surgery. The nurse should include which of the following dietary instructions when preparing the client for discharge?

• A. Start each meal with a protein source.
• B. Consume at least 25g of fiber daily.
• C. Check your blood glucose level before each meal.
• D. Limit your meals to three times per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Start each meal with a protein source.' Protein is crucial for healing and maintaining muscle mass after gastric bypass surgery, making it essential to include in each meal. Choice B is incorrect because immediately after surgery, the focus is typically on a low-fiber diet to aid in healing. Choice C is unrelated to the nutritional needs following gastric bypass surgery. Choice D is also incorrect as patients recovering from gastric bypass surgery may require more frequent, smaller meals to meet their nutritional needs.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Potassium levels
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Reconstitute the medication with normal saline
• B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile water
• C. Administer the medication over 30 minutes
• D. Monitor for signs of toxicity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Ceftriaxone should be reconstituted with sterile water, not saline. Reconstituting it with normal saline can result in a chemical interaction and precipitation of the drug. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (choice C) is not necessary as ceftriaxone is usually given as an intravenous bolus or drip over a shorter period. Monitoring for signs of toxicity (choice D) is important but not the immediate action required for preparing the medication. The priority is to ensure proper reconstitution with the appropriate solvent, which is sterile water.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?

• A. Postpartum depression
• B. Taking-in phase
• C. Postpartum blues
• D. Taking-hold phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum blues, not postpartum depression. Postpartum blues are common and characterized by mood swings, tearfulness, and emotional letdown shortly after delivery. The 'Taking-in phase' involves the mother focusing on her own needs, while the 'Taking-hold phase' is characterized by a desire to learn and feel competent in caring for the baby. Postpartum depression is a more severe and long-lasting condition that requires professional intervention.

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