Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Check the newborn's temperature every 4 hours
• B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin every 4 hours
• C. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours
• D. Reposition the newborn every 2 to 3 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

4. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

5. A nurse is reviewing the guidelines for reporting nationally notifiable infectious diseases. What disease should the nurse report to the CDC?

• A. Measles
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Lyme disease
• D. Zika

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Lyme disease. Lyme disease must be reported to the CDC as it is a nationally notifiable infectious disease. It is spread by ticks and can lead to significant health issues if not monitored. Measles, Hepatitis A, and Zika are also important infectious diseases, but in this case, Lyme disease is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

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