ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?
- A. Potassium supplements
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Escitalopram
- D. Magnesium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.
2. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
3. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
4. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for increased heart rate
- B. Take the medication at the same time every day
- C. It should be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- B. Glucose 50 mg/dL
- C. Bilirubin 4 mg/dL
- D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
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