a nurse is using naegeles rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in october what is the expected da
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, as both medications affect clotting. The client should use alternative pain relievers like acetaminophen. Choice B is correct as using an electric razor is a safe choice to prevent cuts that could lead to bleeding. Choice C is correct as warfarin interacts with vitamin K found in leafy green vegetables. Choice D is correct as regular blood level checks are necessary to monitor the effects and adjust the warfarin dosage if needed.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.

4. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

5. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

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