ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will notify my doctor if I develop a cough.
- B. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
- C. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium-rich foods because ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Clients should notify their doctor if they develop a cough as it can indicate a potential side effect of lisinopril. Avoiding salt substitutes is important as they may contain potassium chloride, which can also raise potassium levels. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential when taking an antihypertensive medication like lisinopril.
3. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
- A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Pulse 54/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.
5. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- B. It is safe to take during pregnancy
- C. Monitor for increased appetite
- D. It can cause hair loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.
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