ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
2. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?
- A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
- B. Tenderness present during menstruation
- C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
- D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?
- A. A wheelchair
- B. A stand-assist lift
- C. A transfer belt
- D. A slide board
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 14 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
- D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.
5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
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