ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
2. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Vomiting
- C. Drainage from the ear
- D. Unequal pupils
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
- A. Bloody diarrhea
- B. Ptosis of the eyelids
- C. Descending paralysis
- D. Rash in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.
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