Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?

• A. 711
• B. 1011
• C. 411
• D. 1211

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.

2. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client to void every 3 hours
• B. Monitor contractions every 30 minutes
• C. Place the client in a lithotomy position
• D. Encourage the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.

3. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client’s name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Report the APs' behavior to the supervisor
• B. Complete an incident report regarding the APs' conversation
• C. Provide the APs with written documentation on confidentiality
• D. Tell the APs to discontinue their conversation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.

4. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is prescribed enoxaparin for DVT prevention. What is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe
• B. Massage the injection site to distribute the medication
• C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
• D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a nurse when administering enoxaparin for DVT prevention is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This is the recommended site for enoxaparin administration. Expelling the air bubble is unnecessary and may lead to a dosage error. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause bruising. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not necessary as discomfort should be minimal and transient.

5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Constipation
• C. Infusion reaction
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

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