ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is using Naegele’s rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
- A. 711
- B. 1011
- C. 411
- D. 1211
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using Naegele’s rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele’s rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele’s rule.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.
3. A nurse is assisting with meal planning for a client who has been prescribed a mechanical soft diet. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Applesauce
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Orange slices
- D. Soft bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange slices. Orange slices contain membranes that are difficult to swallow, which can pose a risk to clients on a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet is designed for individuals who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Choices A, B, and D are suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to chew and swallow.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
5. A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?
- A. Client's diet
- B. Client's age
- C. Client's genetic background
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.
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