Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with Type 1 diabetes?

• A. Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Provide a low-carbohydrate diet and oral hypoglycemics
• C. Administer oral hypoglycemics and provide dietary education
• D. Provide a high-protein diet and insulin injections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is managed with insulin administration and regular blood glucose monitoring. Choice A is correct because administering insulin is essential in Type 1 diabetes management to help regulate blood glucose levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment, not oral hypoglycemics or dietary modifications like low-carbohydrate or high-protein diets. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in adjusting insulin doses and ensuring optimal management of the condition.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Iron 90 mcg/dl.
• B. Prealbumin 10 mcg/dl.
• C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl.
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dl.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Low prealbumin levels are indicative of malnutrition, which is common in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Iron levels, serum creatinine, and calcium levels are not typically affected in the same way by anorexia nervosa, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
• B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
• C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
• D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.

5. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

• A. When the client is hypotensive
• B. When the client is irritable
• C. When the client is flushed
• D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

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