Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

3. What is the role of the nurse in the care of a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a protective dressing
• B. Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently
• C. Apply pressure to the ulcer and monitor for signs of healing
• D. Provide pain relief and administer antibiotics as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently. When caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the wound regularly to monitor its progress and prevent complications. Additionally, repositioning the patient frequently helps to relieve pressure on the affected area, prevent further damage, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because while cleaning the wound is important, applying a protective dressing is not the primary role of the nurse in managing a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the ulcer is harmful, and monitoring for signs of healing should not involve applying pressure. Choice D is incorrect as providing pain relief and administering antibiotics may be necessary but are not the primary interventions for managing a pressure ulcer.

4. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Analgesic
• B. Antiplatelet
• C. Anticoagulant
• D. Thrombolytic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

5. A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes
• B. A client with rotavirus who has been vomiting
• C. A client who has a urinary catheter and cloudy urine
• D. A client who has pneumonia and a new onset of confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with pneumonia and a new onset of confusion needs immediate evaluation for changes in neurological status. This could indicate a decline in respiratory status or potential complications such as hypoxia or sepsis. Option A, a client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes, may need intervention but does not indicate an acute change in condition. Option B, a client with rotavirus who has been vomiting, requires assessment and intervention but does not pose an immediate threat to life. Option C, a client with a urinary catheter and cloudy urine, may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not require immediate attention compared to the client with new onset confusion and pneumonia.

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