a nurse is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioiwhich of the following effects should the nurse identify as
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HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

2. The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has head lice (pediculosis capitis). Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Head lice are highly contagious and can spread to furniture and other people if not treated promptly. Informing the parents about the potential spread of head lice emphasizes the importance of thorough treatment and prevention measures. Choice A is incorrect as regular shampoo is not typically effective in treating head lice. Choice B is incorrect as products containing lindane are not recommended due to safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect as manual removal, though labor-intensive, is a crucial step in effectively treating head lice infestations, but it is not the most pertinent information to include in the teaching session.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for a patient with Impaired physical mobility related to pain is to assist the patient with comfort measures. By addressing pain through comfort measures, the patient will be more willing and able to move. Encouraging self-care (Choice A) may be important but addressing pain first is crucial in improving mobility. Promoting mobility (Choice B) and encouraging range of motion exercises (Choice C) are important but addressing the pain and providing comfort measures take precedence to improve the patient's physical mobility.

5. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.

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