Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

2. When admitting a client to an acute care facility, an identification bracelet is sent up with the admission form. In the event these do not match, the nurse's best action is to

• A. Change whichever item is incorrect to the correct information
• B. Use the bracelet and admission form until a replacement is supplied
• C. Notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet
• D. Make a corrected identification bracelet for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet. By doing so, the nurse ensures patient safety and accuracy in identification. Changing the incorrect item (Choice A) could lead to errors and confusion in the patient's identification. Using the mismatched items until a replacement is supplied (Choice B) compromises patient safety and could result in errors during care delivery. Making a corrected identification bracelet without verifying the correct information (Choice D) could introduce further inaccuracies and risks in patient identification.

3. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

4. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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