ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?
- A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
- B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
- C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
- D. Urine pH 6
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Rectus femoris
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.
3. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client who has slurred speech and reports a headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.
4. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
5. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
- B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
- C. Use only respiratory protection.
- D. Ask a colleague for advice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.
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