Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?

• A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
• C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
• D. Urine pH 6

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Eye exams
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye exams. Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage, making it essential for the nurse to monitor the client's eyes regularly for any changes. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), or complete blood count (choice D) are not directly associated with the potential side effects of hydroxychloroquine.

3. When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?

• A. Insulin can be stored at room temperature indefinitely
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels before administration
• C. Insulin is a long-acting medication
• D. Insulin has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Check for an allergy to eggs
• C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
• D. Monitor for hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.

5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

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