ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Report the incident to the risk manager.
- C. Check the condition of the patient.
- D. Complete an incident report.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson’s disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to eat thin liquids
- B. Instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing
- C. Give the client large pieces of food
- D. Have the client lie down after meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson’s disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson’s disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply ice packs to the affected extremity.
- B. Encourage ambulation every hour.
- C. Elevate the affected leg when in bed.
- D. Massage the affected area to improve circulation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.
5. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
- A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Pulse 54/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
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