Nursing Elites

1. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
• B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
• C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
• D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

3. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breathing sounds
• B. Wheezing
• C. Crackles
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

4. A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client's medical record stating that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client's procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
• B. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and secure them with non-latex tape
• C. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before administering medication
• D. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that are powder-free

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should take precautions to prevent latex exposure to the client due to his latex allergy. Wrapping monitoring cords with stockinette and securing them with non-latex tape helps to minimize the risk of latex contact with the client. Choice A is incorrect as sterilizing non-disposable items with ethylene oxide does not specifically address the avoidance of latex exposure. Choice C involves using latex ports on IV tubing, which can pose a risk of allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy. Choice D suggests wearing latex gloves, even if hypoallergenic, which can still trigger a reaction in individuals with latex allergy. Therefore, the best option is to choose non-latex materials like stockinette and non-latex tape to prevent direct contact with latex.

5. A client is on bed rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours.
• B. Instruct the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours.
• C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Reposition the client every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent complications associated with prolonged bed rest, encouraging the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours is essential. These exercises help promote circulation and prevent blood clots. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours is beneficial for respiratory function, but it is not as critical as antiembolic exercises. Repositioning the client every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and maintain skin integrity. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended, as hydration is important for overall health and well-being, especially for clients on bed rest.

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