Nursing Elites

1. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

2. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

3. A client is having difficulty breathing while laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

• A. Suction the client's airway
• B. Administer a bronchodilator
• C. Increase the humidity in the client's room
• D. Assist the client to an upright position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to an upright position. When a client is having difficulty breathing, promoting optimal oxygenation is essential. Elevating the head of the bed improves ventilation and lung expansion by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. This position allows the lungs to expand fully, enhancing oxygen exchange. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there are secretions causing obstruction, but it is not the first intervention in this scenario. Administering a bronchodilator is appropriate for bronchoconstriction but does not address the immediate need for better ventilation. Increasing humidity can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but it is not the initial priority when a client is struggling to breathe.

4. A client with brain cancer is transferring to hospice care. The client's son tells the nurse, 'I don’t know what to tell my dad if he asks how he is going to die.' Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. “Let’s talk more about your dad’s condition.”
• B. “The social worker will help you answer those questions.”
• C. “I think that you should discuss this with the hospice nurse.”
• D. “Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choosing option D, 'Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can,' is the most appropriate response by the nurse. This response shows empathy and compassion towards the client and their family during this difficult transition. The focus on supporting the client in enjoying their remaining time reflects a holistic approach to care. Options A, B, and C are not the best responses in this situation. Option A could lead to unnecessary details that might be overwhelming for the family. Option B shifts the responsibility to the social worker without providing immediate support. Option C deflects the son's concerns to another healthcare professional when emotional support is needed.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
• B. Notify the nursing manager
• C. Consult the facility's risk manager
• D. Complete an incident report

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.

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