HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?
- A. Reassess the client’s pain
- B. Increase the pain medication dose
- C. Apply a cold compress
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.
2. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
- A. Heparin secretion
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Phagocytotic action
- D. Antibody formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Sodium level
- B. Potassium level
- C. Calcium level
- D. Chloride level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.
4. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?
- A. Stand the client to void and run tap water within hearing distance before catheterizing
- B. Straight catheterize and if the residual urine volume is greater than 100 mL, clamp catheter
- C. Catheterize q2h and place in an indwelling catheter at the end of the prescribed 24hr period
- D. Catheterize with an indwelling catheter and if the residual volume is greater than 100 mL, inflate the balloon
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.
5. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Increased appetite.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Fever or sore throat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
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