Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

• A. The chest
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of substance abuse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for withdrawal symptoms
• B. Encourage social activities
• C. Schedule regular follow-ups
• D. Provide educational materials

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for withdrawal symptoms. This is a priority because individuals with a history of substance abuse are at risk of experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the substance is no longer used. Monitoring for withdrawal symptoms is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to manage any potential complications related to substance withdrawal. Encouraging social activities, scheduling regular follow-ups, and providing educational materials are also important aspects of care, but they are not as critical as monitoring for withdrawal symptoms in this immediate scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

• A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
• B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
• C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
• D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

Similar Questions