a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease which of the following positions should the nurse pla
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.

4. A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.

5. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

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