ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. The chest
- B. Standing
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Hypothermia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Lethargy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a thyroid storm, which is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, hypertension is an expected finding. Other common manifestations include tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. Hypothermia (choice A) is not expected in a thyroid storm as the body temperature is usually elevated due to increased metabolic rate. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typical in a thyroid storm; instead, tachycardia is more common. Lethargy (choice D) is not a typical finding in a thyroid storm, as clients are usually agitated due to excess thyroid hormone levels.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase protein intake between dialysis sessions
- B. Reduce potassium intake
- C. Avoid iron supplements
- D. Expect weight gain after each dialysis session
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
- A. Sunken anterior fontanel
- B. Tenting skin turgor
- C. Flat anterior fontanel
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
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