Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
• B. It can cause sedation
• C. It has no risk for dependence
• D. It can be taken as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?

• A. Redness at the site
• B. Warmth around the site
• C. Edema
• D. Pain at the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.

4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Respiratory rate of 12/min
• B. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• D. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?

• A. Macrosomia
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cleft palate
• D. Spina bifida

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.

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