Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

2. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.

3. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
• C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
• D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a colon resection. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Capillary refill
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Temperature
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

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