Nursing Elites

1. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

3. An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?

• A. Examine the elbow
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Apply a warm compress to the elbow
• D. Assess the client’s range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client’s range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?

• A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
• B. A client who has heart failure
• C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. A client who has abdominal ascites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.

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