HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
3. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?
- A. ''I think I should take my pain medication more often since it is not controlling my pain.''
- B. ''Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off of the pain.''
- C. ''It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed.''
- D. ''I don't want to walk today because I have some pain.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.
4. While administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal cramping. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client hold their breath briefly and bear down.
- B. Clamp the enema tubing.
- C. Remind the client that cramping is common at this time.
- D. Raise the level of the enema fluid container.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client reports abdominal cramping during a cleansing enema, it is important for the nurse to reassure the client that cramping is a common side effect. This reassurance helps the client understand that the cramping is normal and may subside once the enema is completed. Instructing the client to hold their breath and bear down (Choice A) is not appropriate and may cause discomfort. Clamping the enema tubing (Choice B) is unnecessary and could lead to complications. Raising the level of the enema fluid container (Choice D) does not address the client's discomfort due to cramping. Therefore, the most suitable action is to provide reassurance to the client about the common occurrence of cramping during the enema.
5. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
- B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
- C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
- D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.
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