Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

• A. Level of consciousness.
• B. Skin turgor.
• C. Deep-tendon reflexes.
• D. Bowel sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

2. What are the key components of a respiratory assessment?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Inspection, Observation, Auscultation, Percussion
• C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
• D. Observation, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for symmetry and signs of distress, palpating for tenderness or abnormal masses, performing percussion to assess underlying tissues, and auscultating lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect as observation is a broad term that can encompass both inspection and palpation. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation is usually performed after inspection and palpation. Choice D is incorrect as observation should be more specific, and auscultation is a key component that is typically done last in a respiratory assessment.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 mL
• B. 2 mL
• C. 3 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

4. What are the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of treatment?

• A. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Lifestyle modifications and oral agents
• B. Type 1: Oral agents; Type 2: Insulin therapy
• C. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• D. Type 1: Exercise and diet; Type 2: Insulin only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Type 1 diabetes necessitates insulin therapy, whereas Type 2 diabetes is managed with lifestyle modifications and oral agents. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes does not use oral agents as a primary treatment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the pathophysiology of diabetes types rather than their treatments. Choice D is incorrect because Type 2 diabetes management involves more than just insulin and includes lifestyle changes and oral medications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

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