a nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate turp which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

2. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of fluid overload include edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling, shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, and weight gain is often seen as a result of excess fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because high blood pressure and jugular venous distention are more indicative of conditions like heart failure, while low blood pressure and cyanosis are seen in conditions like shock or poor perfusion. Tachycardia and dizziness are not typical signs of fluid overload.

4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing a patient with sepsis requires a multi-faceted approach. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial to combat the underlying infection. Monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature helps assess the patient's response to treatment and identify any deterioration. Administering fluids is essential to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of sepsis management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential in the comprehensive care of a patient with sepsis. Omitting any of these aspects can lead to suboptimal outcomes, as each plays a critical role in addressing different aspects of sepsis management.

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