Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate response when a client wants to discontinue dialysis?

• A. Ask the client why they want to discontinue.
• B. Instruct the client to focus on self-care.
• C. Offer to call the provider to cancel dialysis.
• D. Seek clarification and establish understanding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to discontinue dialysis, the most appropriate response is to seek clarification and establish understanding. This approach allows the healthcare provider to comprehend the client's concerns, provide support, and engage in a collaborative decision-making process. Choice A, asking the client why they want to discontinue, can be perceived as confrontational and may not effectively address the underlying reasons. Instructing the client to focus on self-care (Choice B) may overlook the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. Offering to call the provider to cancel dialysis (Choice C) does not actively involve the client in the decision-making process or address their concerns adequately.

2. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
• C. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag.
• D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with low blood glucose needs immediate assessment to ensure that the orange juice has corrected the hypoglycemia. Monitoring the effectiveness of the intervention for low blood glucose is the priority. The other options, such as a client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour, a client with fluid remaining in the IV bag, and a client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not require immediate assessment like the client with low blood glucose.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Chills
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Low back pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

4. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?

• A. Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a low-sodium diet
• C. Encourage oral fluids and increase dietary potassium
• D. Provide high-sodium foods to improve electrolyte balance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.

5. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

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