Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving radiation treatments for cancer. The client states he is experiencing dryness, redness, and scaling at the treatment area. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Sit in the sun for 15 minutes per day.
• B. Apply moist heat to the area twice daily.
• C. Liberally apply prescribed lotion to the area.
• D. Wash the affected area daily with antimicrobial soap.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to liberally apply prescribed lotion to the treatment area. Prescribed hydrating lotions help soothe and protect irradiated skin, reducing dryness, redness, and scaling. Sitting in the sun can further damage the skin. Applying moist heat may exacerbate the skin condition. Washing the area with antimicrobial soap can be too harsh and further irritate the skin.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of hydrocodone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pain level
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering hydrocodone, a healthcare professional should assess the respiratory rate first because hydrocodone is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring the respiratory rate helps to detect any signs of respiratory distress or depression early on. Assessing blood pressure, pain level, or heart rate is also important but not the priority when administering hydrocodone, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more critical concern.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

4. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

• A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.
• B. Take the medication only if you feel nauseous.
• C. Avoid drinking any fluids while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

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