ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum electrolytes
- C. Blood pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
3. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once they are made
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives
- C. I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
4. A nurse is receiving a report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has an ileal conduit and mucus in the pouch
- B. Client with arteriovenous fistula with additional vibration palpated
- C. A client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow
- D. A client with transurethral resection of the prostate with red-tinged urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow first because cloudy dialysate outflow suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate intervention. Assessing and addressing peritonitis promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and D present important findings that require attention but are not as urgent as peritonitis, which can quickly escalate and endanger the client's health.
5. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?
- A. Fetal heart rate
- B. Client's blood pressure
- C. Client's respiratory rate
- D. Client's pain level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
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