ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
- B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
- C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
- D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
3. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?
- A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
- B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
- C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
- D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Serum potassium levels
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor both blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, and may cause hypertension. Monitoring these parameters is essential to detect and address any potential adverse effects promptly. While monitoring serum potassium levels is important in some situations, it is not a primary concern when caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate options for monitoring in this scenario, making option D the correct answer.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Improved lung sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.
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