Nursing Elites

1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

2. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

3. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

4. When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?

• A. 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
• B. 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
• C. 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight gain in the second trimester
• D. 11.3 kg (25 lb) weight gain in the third trimester

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb) in the first trimester is excessive and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Excessive weight gain in the first trimester can be a sign of potential issues that need monitoring and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, C, and D represent weight gains that are within normal ranges for the respective trimesters and do not raise immediate concerns for reporting to the provider.

5. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?

• A. Mongolian spots
• B. Milia spots
• C. Erythema toxicum
• D. Epstein's pearls

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epstein's pearls are small pearly white nodules commonly observed on the roof of a newborn's mouth. They are considered a normal finding and typically disappear without treatment. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these benign nodules to differentiate them from other conditions and provide appropriate education to parents. The other choices are incorrect: A) Mongolian spots are blue or purple birthmarks commonly found on the skin; B) Milia spots are tiny white bumps on a newborn's nose and face; C) Erythema toxicum presents as a rash of flat red splotches with small bumps that can appear on a baby's skin.

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