Nursing Elites

1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

2. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
• B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
• C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
• D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.

3. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
• B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
• C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
• D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

4. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
• B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
• C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
• D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Check the client's capillary refill.
• B. Massage the client's fundus.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
• D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.

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