ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Disulfiram
- C. Chlordiazepoxide
- D. Phenobarbital
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Nausea
- B. Confusion about own name
- C. Rapid pulse
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
4. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
- B. Absent bowel sounds.
- C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.
5. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a preschooler. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 80/min
- B. Heart rate 90/min
- C. Respiratory rate 28/min
- D. Heart rate 146/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A heart rate of 146/min is abnormal for a preschooler and indicates tachycardia, which should be reported to the provider. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges for a preschooler's heart rate (80-120/min) and respiratory rate (22-34/min), so they do not require immediate reporting. Option D is the correct answer as it deviates significantly from the normal range and may indicate an underlying health issue that needs attention.
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