Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following communication techniques should the nurse use to establish a trusting relationship with the client?

• A. Offer medical advice
• B. Offer general leads
• C. Ask open-ended questions
• D. Use assertive communication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of establishing a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder, offering general leads is the most appropriate communication technique. General leads encourage clients to express themselves by providing subtle prompts or cues, which can help build rapport and trust. Offering medical advice (Choice A) is not suitable as it may come across as imposing and could hinder the establishment of trust. Asking open-ended questions (Choice C) is beneficial for eliciting detailed responses but may not be as effective at initially establishing trust as general leads. Using assertive communication (Choice D) can be perceived as aggressive and intimidating, which is not conducive to building a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with Type 1 diabetes?

• A. Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Provide a low-carbohydrate diet and oral hypoglycemics
• C. Administer oral hypoglycemics and provide dietary education
• D. Provide a high-protein diet and insulin injections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is managed with insulin administration and regular blood glucose monitoring. Choice A is correct because administering insulin is essential in Type 1 diabetes management to help regulate blood glucose levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment, not oral hypoglycemics or dietary modifications like low-carbohydrate or high-protein diets. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in adjusting insulin doses and ensuring optimal management of the condition.

3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

4. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?

• A. Keep the client awake
• B. Instruct the client not to get out of bed
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• D. Encourage early ambulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.

5. What are the complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis and retinopathy
• B. Hypoglycemia and neuropathy
• C. Hypotension and kidney failure
• D. Infection and fluid overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis and retinopathy are indeed common complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when the body starts breaking down fat for fuel, leading to a dangerous buildup of ketones in the blood. Retinopathy refers to damage to the blood vessels of the retina due to high blood sugar levels over time. The other choices, hypoglycemia and neuropathy (choice B), hypotension and kidney failure (choice C), and infection and fluid overload (choice D) are not typically the primary complications associated with untreated Type 1 diabetes.

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