Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
• B. Nasal flaring
• C. Heart rate 158/min
• D. One void since birth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

2. A client who is being admitted for induction of labor is receiving teaching about newborn safety from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room.
• B. I should include a photo of my baby along with any public birth announcements on social media.
• C. I will allow my baby to sleep on the bed in my room when I am in the shower.
• D. I should expect the nurses to carry my baby in their arms to the nursery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client should verify the identification badge of anyone removing their baby to ensure the infant's safety and prevent abduction. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the importance of strict identification protocols in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because including a photo of the baby in public announcements does not relate to newborn safety teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is unsafe to allow a baby to sleep on the bed unsupervised. Choice D is incorrect because nurses typically encourage parents to carry their baby to the nursery themselves for bonding and security reasons.

3. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for patients who have kidney failure. What source should the nurse identify as the best source for obtaining evidence-based practice information?

• A. A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article
• B. A website for a nursing association
• C. A textbook published 5 years ago
• D. An expert opinion from a seasoned nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article. Peer-reviewed research articles provide the most current and reliable evidence-based practice information for clinical care. Choice B, a website for a nursing association, may have valuable information but may not always guarantee the highest level of evidence. Choice C, a textbook published 5 years ago, may not reflect the most up-to-date practices and guidelines. Choice D, an expert opinion from a seasoned nurse, though valuable, is not as reliable as evidence derived from peer-reviewed research articles.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

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