a nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

2. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

3. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.

5. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the knee-chest position to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. This position helps to prevent cord compression and improves fetal oxygenation. Administering oxytocin (Choice A) could worsen the situation by increasing contractions and potentially compressing the umbilical cord. Applying oxygen (Choice B) is not the priority in this emergency situation. Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (Choice C) is not appropriate as the immediate concern is relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.

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