a nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

2. A nurse is caring for a client in a mental health facility. The client’s daughter is crying and tells the nurse that she feels guilty for leaving her father in the hospital. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'I’d like to know more about what’s bothering you.' Encouraging the daughter to express her feelings allows her to explore her emotions, which can be helpful in addressing her guilt and providing emotional support. Choice B is not as open-ended and may come across as confrontational. Choice C may invalidate the daughter's feelings of guilt by implying she shouldn't feel that way. Choice D assumes the father's emotions and may not address the daughter's feelings of guilt effectively.

3. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

5. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

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