a nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

2. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.

4. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

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