ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan to support the client’s cognitive function?
- A. Place a daily calendar in the kitchen
- B. Replace buttoned clothing with zippered items
- C. Replace carpet with hardwood floors
- D. Create variation in the daily routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is beneficial for clients with Alzheimer's disease as it helps in orienting them to time and enhances cognitive function. This visual aid can assist in keeping track of days and activities. Choice B, replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items, is more related to promoting independence in dressing rather than directly supporting cognitive function. Choice C, replacing carpet with hardwood floors, focuses on safety and mobility rather than cognitive function. Choice D, creating variation in the daily routine, may be helpful for engagement and stimulation but does not directly address cognitive function as effectively as using a daily calendar.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Sticky mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.
4. A nurse receives a report from an assistive personnel that a client's BP is 160/95. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Recheck the client's BP
- C. Document the findings
- D. Administer antihypertensive medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to recheck the client's BP. It is essential for the nurse to verify the accuracy of the initial reading by reassessing the blood pressure. Notifying the healthcare provider or administering antihypertensive medication should only occur after confirming the elevated blood pressure through a recheck. Documenting the findings is important but should follow the confirmation of the BP reading.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Nifedipine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.
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