Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Vernix caseosa
• B. Head circumference of 34 cm
• C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
• D. Respiratory rate of 50/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

2. A nurse is sitting with the partner of a client who recently died. Which action should the nurse take to facilitate mourning?

• A. Offer advice on coping strategies
• B. Encourage the partner to ask for help when needed
• C. Discuss the importance of grieving alone
• D. Suggest the partner avoid talking about the loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the partner to ask for help when needed is the most appropriate action for the nurse to facilitate mourning. Grieving is a challenging process, and individuals may require support from others to cope effectively. Offering advice on coping strategies, discussing the importance of grieving alone, or suggesting avoiding talking about the loss could hinder the partner's mourning process by isolating them or suppressing their feelings.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

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