ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the psychiatric emergency services by law enforcement. The client has disorganized, incoherent speech with loose associations and religious content. The nurse should recognize these signs and symptoms as consistent with which of the following?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Schizophrenia
- C. Substance intoxication
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schizophrenia. Disorganized speech, loose associations, and religious delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, indicating a severe mental disorder requiring immediate attention. Choice A, Alzheimer's disease, primarily involves cognitive decline and memory impairment, not disorganized speech or religious content. Choice C, Substance intoxication, may present with altered mental status but typically lacks the persistent pattern of symptoms seen in schizophrenia. Choice D, Depression, is associated with a different set of symptoms such as low mood, anhedonia, and changes in appetite or sleep, rather than disorganized speech and loose associations.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can take several weeks for effects to be noticed
- B. It is an antipsychotic medication
- C. It should be taken at night
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When educating a client about fluoxetine, it is essential to mention that it can take several weeks for the therapeutic effects to be noticed. This is because fluoxetine is an SSRI that requires time to build up in the body and start producing its intended effects. Choice B is incorrect as fluoxetine is not an antipsychotic medication but an SSRI. Choice C is inaccurate because fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day, and there is no specific requirement to take it at night. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including fluoxetine, have potential side effects that should be discussed with the client.
3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Sudden weight loss
- B. Regular contractions
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Vaginal spotting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.
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