ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Decreased urination
- D. Both B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.
3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
- C. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
- D. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Aspirate before injecting
- B. Massage the site after injecting
- C. Administer the injection in the abdomen
- D. Inject at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication in the abdomen subcutaneously. This route ensures proper absorption of the medication. Aspiration is not necessary before injecting enoxaparin as it is a subcutaneous injection, not an intramuscular injection. Massaging the site after injecting should be avoided to prevent bruising. Enoxaparin injections are typically given at a 45 to 90-degree angle, not necessarily at a strict 90-degree angle.
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