ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. During a weekly prenatal visit, a nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 136/88 mm Hg
- B. Report of insomnia
- C. Weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb)
- D. Report of Braxton-Hicks contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.2 kg (4.8 lb) in a week is above the expected reference range for a client at 38 weeks of gestation and could indicate complications such as preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Rapid weight gain at this stage requires immediate attention and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority findings to report to the provider at this stage of gestation. Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg is within normal limits in pregnancy, insomnia is common in the third trimester, and Braxton-Hicks contractions are expected in the third trimester as the body prepares for labor.
2. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.
3. A client who is 2 days postpartum has a saturated perineal pad with bright red lochia containing small clots. What should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Moderate lochia rubra
- B. Excessive lochia serosa
- C. Light lochia rubra
- D. Scant lochia serosa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Moderate lochia rubra.' On the second day postpartum, it is normal for lochia to be bright red and contain small clots, indicating moderate lochia rubra. This amount of bleeding is expected as the uterus continues to shed its lining after childbirth. Excessive lochia serosa, light lochia rubra, and scant lochia serosa do not accurately reflect the described scenario. Excessive lochia serosa is more characteristic of a later postpartum period, while light and scant lochia serosa are not consistent with the bright red color and small clots observed in this case.
4. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?
- A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
- B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
- C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
- D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.
5. A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?
- A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
- B. Absence of vitamin K
- C. Physiologic jaundice
- D. Maternal cocaine abuse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.
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