Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of diverticulitis is being taught dietary management by a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements should the provider include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• B. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• C. You should decrease your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it promotes regular bowel movements and prevents constipation, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall digestive health. Choice B is incorrect because lactose intolerance is different from diverticulitis and avoiding lactose is not a standard recommendation for diverticulitis. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing high-fiber foods would be counterproductive for managing diverticulitis. Choice D is wrong because increasing dairy products is not a primary dietary recommendation for diverticulitis management.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client who has an NG tube for continuous feedings. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Add crushed medications to the enteral feeding.
• B. Infuse each medication by gravity.
• C. Administer the medications through a syringe.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 5 mL of sterile water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering medications through a syringe is the correct action to take when a client has an NG tube for continuous feedings. This method ensures that each medication is delivered correctly and is not mixed with the enteral feeding, preventing drug interactions and ensuring proper administration of each medication. Adding crushed medications to the enteral feeding (Choice A) can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential drug interactions. Infusing each medication by gravity (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Flushing the NG tube with sterile water (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to administering medications through the tube.

5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

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