ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after a vaginal delivery and notes that the client's uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Massage the uterus
- C. Administer oxytocin
- D. Encourage breastfeeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A boggy and displaced uterus is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting effectively. The priority intervention is to assist the client to void. By emptying the bladder, the uterus can return to midline and become firm. Massaging the uterus or administering oxytocin may be necessary but should come after addressing the bladder distention. Encouraging breastfeeding is important for uterine contraction but is not the priority in this situation.
2. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?
- A. Prone position
- B. Supine position
- C. Side-lying position
- D. Semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.
3. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:
- A. Migraines
- B. Hypertension
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Heart disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.
4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Stimulate the newborn
- C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation
- D. Continue routine monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.
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