Nursing Elites

1. A child is being assessed for suspected intussusception. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Projectile vomiting
• B. Currant jelly stools
• C. Abdominal distension
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation that a nurse is likely to observe in a child with suspected intussusception is abdominal distension. Intussusception is a medical emergency where a part of the intestine folds into itself, causing obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common symptom due to the obstruction and the build-up of gases and fluids. While currant jelly stools (Choice B) are a classic sign of intussusception, they are typically seen in later stages of the condition and may not be present during the initial assessment. Projectile vomiting (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like pyloric stenosis. Constipation (Choice D) is not a typical manifestation of intussusception; the condition usually presents with severe colicky abdominal pain and possible passage of blood and mucus in stools.

2. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

3. During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?

• A. Incisors
• B. Canines
• C. Upper molars
• D. Lower molars

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.

4. A child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the child's sleep patterns
• B. Assess the child's dietary intake
• C. Assess the child's academic performance
• D. Assess the child's behavior at home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial in managing asthma as certain foods can trigger symptoms or exacerbate the condition. By evaluating the child's diet, the nurse can identify potential triggers, ensure the child receives proper nutrition, and help manage symptoms effectively. Assessing sleep patterns, academic performance, or behavior at home, while important in a holistic assessment, are not as directly related to managing asthma symptoms as dietary intake.

5. A healthcare provider is educating a parent group about the importance of immunizations. Which disease can be prevented by the varicella vaccine?

• A. Measles
• B. Mumps
• C. Rubella
• D. Chickenpox

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The varicella vaccine is specifically designed to prevent chickenpox. Measles, mumps, and rubella are prevented by different vaccines: Measles is prevented by the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine; Mumps is prevented by the MMR vaccine; and Rubella is also prevented by the MMR vaccine. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Chickenpox, as it is the disease prevented by the varicella vaccine.

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