a nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery which of the following behaviors should the nurse i
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urge suppression can lead to constipation by delaying bowel movements and causing fecal impaction, especially in postoperative patients. Regular fluid intake (choice A) is important to prevent constipation by maintaining hydration and aiding in bowel movements. Increased physical activity (choice C) helps stimulate bowel function and prevent constipation. Adequate dietary fiber (choice D) is essential for promoting healthy bowel movements and preventing constipation. However, urge suppression (choice B) is the behavior that directly contributes to constipation in this scenario.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.

3. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.

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