Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Converse with the client to determine if the mucous membranes are impaired
• B. Report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr
• C. Monitor client's ability to move in the bed
• D. Check skin turgor every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.

2. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the infusion rate
• C. Administer a bolus of fluid
• D. Replace the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

5. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
• B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
• C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
• D. Use a less painful dressing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

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