Nursing Elites

1. A female client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been experiencing flashbacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Advise the client to avoid triggers that cause flashbacks.
• C. Help the client stay grounded in the present moment.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy for PTSD.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to help them stay grounded in the present moment. This technique can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and provide a sense of safety. Encouraging the client to talk about the trauma (Choice A) may exacerbate the symptoms and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. Advising the client to avoid triggers (Choice B) is important, but solely relying on avoidance may not address the underlying issues. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, but in the immediate context of managing flashbacks, grounding techniques are more appropriate.

2. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

3. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?

• A. Claustrophobia.
• B. Acrophobia.
• C. Agoraphobia.
• D. Necrophobia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Increased appetite.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs. While hypertension (A) can occur with other medications, it is not typically associated with SSRIs. Increased appetite (C) and weight gain (D) are potential side effects of some antidepressants, but sexual dysfunction is more specific to SSRIs. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client about the risk of sexual dysfunction when taking an SSRI.

5. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

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