Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is planning a health promotion campaign. What should be the first step?

• A. Developing educational materials
• B. Assessing the needs of the community
• C. Implementing interventions
• D. Evaluating outcomes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in planning a health promotion campaign is to assess the needs of the community. By understanding the community's specific health needs, preferences, and resources, the nurse can tailor the campaign effectively. Developing educational materials (choice A) should come after assessing needs to ensure relevance. Implementing interventions (choice C) and evaluating outcomes (choice D) should also follow the assessment phase to measure the impact of the campaign accurately.

2. As community health nurses engage in the process of community empowerment, it is essential that they:

• A. gather data from the community
• B. form partnerships with people in the community
• C. make decisions for the people in the community
• D. accept responsibility for people's actions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the process of community empowerment, community health nurses should form partnerships with the community rather than making decisions for them, gathering data alone, or accepting responsibility for their actions. Forming partnerships ensures that the community is actively involved in decision-making processes, leading to sustainable and effective outcomes. Gathering data is important but not the central aspect of empowerment, while accepting responsibility for people's actions is not a core principle of empowerment but rather promoting accountability within the community.

3. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
• B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
• D. Decrease in chest wall expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

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