Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.

2. A client who is prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension calls the clinic for advice. Which condition should the practical nurse notify the health care provider immediately and instruct the client to stop taking the medication?

• A. The client is experiencing vision and hearing loss.
• B. The client has an erection lasting longer than 4 hours.
• C. The client is complaining of nasal congestion.
• D. The client is complaining of feeling flushed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. If a client prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension experiences vision and/or hearing loss or an erection lasting more than 4 hours, the practical nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the medication immediately and notify the health care provider. These symptoms could indicate serious side effects that require prompt medical attention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an erection lasting more than 2 hours (not 4 hours as stated in choice B) is a critical adverse effect that warrants immediate medical attention. Nasal congestion (choice C) and feeling flushed (choice D) are common side effects of sildenafil and typically do not necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication or emergency intervention.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

5. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

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